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"You can't prove a negative!"

devilsadvocate

New Member
arg-fallbackName="devilsadvocate"/>
While I was reading the "William Craig debunk" thread, I started thinking about the widespread claim, "You can't prove a (universal) negative", and whether there's any truth to that. I posted this elsewhere, but I thought it could be good to have it here as well for criticism (does it make any sense, in fact?) and discussion . So here are my quick thoughts:

I didn't talk about analytic truths in my original post because in the context it wasn't needed, so consider this paragraph a quick preface: You can certainly prove an analytic universal negative. This is trivial because in analytic statements the subject already contains the predicate, and as such the claim is true by definition. "No bachelors are married", is an example of that. Also deductive logic can be used for synthetic truths, but since those arguments usually fail or persuade depending on the truth of the premises, whose acceptance almost always depends, in turn, on inductive reasoning, I didn't feel worthwhile to consider those. To the actual post then:


First of all, if you can't prove universal negative, you cannot prove universal affirmative. The claim,

"No swans are black" is equivalent to "All swans are non-black" via simple inference. Or more generally "No S are P",> "All S are non-P".

Second, most people do not understand what universal claim means in logic. "Universal" simply means "all of S" instead of the particular, "some of S". The subject, "the S", can be as well-defined as one wants, and, in fact, the claim, "Santa Claus is not real", is a universal affirmative claim about a singular (There is only one possible Santa Claus that fits the definition). Predicate can be as well-defined as we want, as well. For example, "No mice are in my closet", where the predicate, "in my closet", limits the scope of the argument.

So to try to keep it short: Negative and affirmative claims are inferred trivially between each other, and the scope of the argument does not need to be high for a "universal" claim. When it is said, "universal negatives cannot be proved", more often than not what is really targeted are claims where the field of knowledge required for the claim to be proven false is absurdly high. This is of course valid objection when burden of proof is made lopsided, "A bearded, jolly, fat man who owns flying reindeers exists somewhere in the universe. Prove I'm WRONG on that!". But it isn't valid because "You can't prove a negative."
 
arg-fallbackName="Master_Ghost_Knight"/>
I think the issue is much simpler than that, and what is actually aplicable is prof by example. I can say that "X" exists and I can prove it by showing you an example of an existing "X", however if I postulate that "X" doesn't exist, no ammount of failure of my part to bring about an example of an existing "X" would convince you that it actually doesn't.
I do agree with your observation that the simple a blank statment "you can't prove a negative" is just simply absurd.
 
arg-fallbackName="devilsadvocate"/>
I agree with what you said about "X doesn't exist", when X is something sufficiently broad. I have to make this clear though, the reason why that claim is suspect isn't because of any inherent logical fallacy, but because we can see it is outside the field of your, or any human, knowledge. It's epistemic problem, "You can't possibly know that!". As far as criticism goes, we should as skeptics for this reason be careful to state our objections with sufficient accuracy. Instead of saying "There are no telekinetic powers", it would be more correct to say and also think, "There are no scientifically demonstrable telekinetic powers." or "There isn't a case in the known history of scientific method, where telekinetic powers have been shown to work in a controlled experiment."
 
arg-fallbackName="ImprobableJoe"/>
http://departments.bloomu.edu/philosophy/pages/content/hales/articlepdf/proveanegative.pdf
 
arg-fallbackName="Squawk"/>
I tend to rephrase the statement to

You can't prove the negative of an existence postulate (ie, does not exist). That is, I think, a fairly succinct way of stating the issue at hand, and serves nicely for purpose since the subject matter in this context tends to be god.

You can of course prove a negative given appropriate constraints, but they never do seem to get applied.
 
arg-fallbackName="Master_Ghost_Knight"/>
Squawk said:
I tend to rephrase the statement to

You can't prove the negative of an existence postulate (ie, does not exist). That is, I think, a fairly succinct way of stating the issue at hand, and serves nicely for purpose since the subject matter in this context tends to be god.

You can of course prove a negative given appropriate constraints, but they never do seem to get applied.

There doesn't exist anywhere in the universe a machine that violates the first law of thermodynamics. That can be proven scientificaly to a satisfying degree.
 
arg-fallbackName=">< V ><"/>
Squawk said:
I tend to rephrase the statement to

You can't prove the negative of an existence postulate (ie, does not exist). That is, I think, a fairly succinct way of stating the issue at hand, and serves nicely for purpose since the subject matter in this context tends to be god.

You can of course prove a negative given appropriate constraints, but they never do seem to get applied.



Most theists believe God is the creator of the universe.

But a creators "creation" demands a beginning, a point when the "creation" did not exist.

Before the Big Bang was accepted, there was also a competing theory called the Steady State, in which the universe had no beginning and no end. IF the Steady State solution had been the more accurate picture of the universe, then atheists today would have a major piece of evidence that denies the existence of a creator. Evidence that the universe had no beginning, thus no point of creation.

But that's not what happened.

I'm not saying the Big Bang proves God, I'm saying a Steady State universe denies the existence of creation and thus a creator and this could have falsified the creation claim, but it failed. Thus, a creation claim is falsifiable and within the realm of science.
 
arg-fallbackName="Master_Ghost_Knight"/>
>< V >< said:
Thus, a creation claim is falsifiable and within the realm of science.
No, a creation claim is in the realm of fiction simply due to the fact that you can't substantiate you claim. Science isn't apologetics.
 
arg-fallbackName="Dean"/>
Master_Ghost_Knight said:
>< V >< said:
Thus, a creation claim is falsifiable and within the realm of science.
No, a creation claim is in the realm of fiction simply due to the fact that you can't substantiate you claim. Science isn't apologetics.
In other words, false, as well as falsifiable then? :?
 
arg-fallbackName="Master_Ghost_Knight"/>
Dean said:
In other words, false, as well as falsifiable then? :?
No what I mean is, it takes more than falsifiability to be science. There are falsifiable statments that can be done in mathematics, however mathemtics is still not science. In this case, to be science you also need to work with real world data that directly relates to the subject matter.

Let me give you an example, let us supouse that you are investigating a murder scence and you have a main suspect named John.
Now there are a bunch of people who believe John is inocent and they claim that he never was at the crime scene albeit they didn't knew where he was at the time. You would say as long as there is no evidence the claim of the people that believe in the inocense of John is unfalsifiable.
But let us imagin now that you have found a piece of hair that didn't belong to the victim, one could emidiatly say that the claim that John is inocent is potentialy fasifiable because if it turns out that the piece of hair belongs to john then tha means that John was at the crime Scene. Tests are made and we find out tht the piece of hair doesn't belong to John, would you then conclude that the claim "John is inocent" is therefore scientific?
Of course not, maybe John wa there and had an acumplice, maybe the piece of hair was already there, you have just dabled back into speculative land. No matter how many pontential means of proving that John was there fail but that is no evidence that a smarter person couldn't have come along a do it instead.
However for the claim "John is inocent" to be scientificaly correct you must for instance find a security tape of him somewhere else at the time of the murder.
You don't need to have any such tapes yet, but maybe you can form theories based on where John claimed he was, maybe you can even deduce that he went trough a gas station and try to find if the gas station had a surveilance system or something else equaly valid. Only then the "inocense of John" can be scientific, because there is this direct relation between the "inocense of John" and things in the real world.

In God case however, you don't even have a solid basis to even tell what the hell God is, much less something about it that relates it to something real, never mind be scientific to speculate about its existance.
God making the universe is as much a scientific as magical unicorns making the universe.
 
arg-fallbackName="nemesiss"/>
i think the real problem is that no one really points out the lazyness of the one making the claim.

if you ever were to enter a debate and the opposition brings op the whole "can't proof a negative" argument, like "[person X] (still) hasn't shown proof that [ITEM A] doesn't exist", i think the best way to start to retort him is "An applause for one of the laziest investigators in this establishment."

followed by
to explain how lazy it is, lets go with the following assumption. [William Lane Craig] claims he's a man. You'd think it would be easy to confirm this. It may be impropper behavior to do it here, but all he needs to do is show his genitals and the case is closed. we have our answer, solid and firm.

But what if we were to apply the same reasoning as he just did and he answers: "NO YOU MAY NOT SEE MY GENITALS!!" you must accept that i have them!

It's understandable if he is shy and/or his genitals are small and he doesn't want to show them publicly.
so let's say we do our test in an enclosed place without a crowd... or we just rip off his pants here forcefully... what if we were to discover that he doesn't have any genitals at all... are we still take his claim serious? isn't it just easier to accept he has no genitals?
What if he goes sofar to ensist he still has genitals... but their detachable and that he left them at home?
should we take him serious on that? i do not think anyone would.

For those who wonder how genitals have anything to with gods.
Both are an object which the other person claims exist, but doesn't want to show.
he's perfectly fine, living in complete ignorance even when it can be demonstrated that he is living a LIE !
when someone points out he is living a lie, he will do his utmost best to come up with something rediculous so that he can keep living that oh so comfortable lie... till the day that he dies.
Thats a position i do not wish take. i think it's better to be proven wrong, than to think i'm right and be wrong.

if he were able to proof his god, he would be able to turn every atheist into a theist like him...yet he doesn't even try.
the only thing that can be said .. is that either he is incredible lazy or he knows fully well that he is living a lie.
if he goes with the whole "spaceless, timeless" agrument
how do we know chuck norris exists? we can find him. though some will say it's actually the other way around and he finds us.
how doe we know dinosaurs existed? they don't anymore... but we know WHEN (millions of years) and WHERE.

everything that ever existed in this universe, our reality, can be identified with a WHEN and a WHERE.
[william lane craig] just told us that his god can't be identified with a when and a where. in other words... he just admitted that his god, BY HIS OWN WORDS, doesn't exist, has never existed and can never ever exist!
admittance that his god is pure fantasy, how much more proof would one need?
 
arg-fallbackName="nemesiss"/>
TheMaw said:
"You Can't Prove A Negative"

Can he prove this? :roll:

your pretty new to this argument, aren't you.
the ALWAYS!! ALWAYS use that to their advantage.
they rephrase it as "if you can't proof i'm wrong, then i must be right, therefor i win"
 
arg-fallbackName="Gekidami"/>
^ I'm more familiar with; "You cant prove i'm wrong, i cant prove to you that i'm right, therefore stalemate". Of course that puts their belief on shaky grounds; Can you prove it to yourself? What does 'just knowing its true' mean? Who taught you about this belief, how did they prove it to you, why did you believe them and why do you still believe them?
 
arg-fallbackName=">< V ><"/>
Whether the universe is a Steady State or Big Bang is a scientific and experimental question. I have no doubt that if the Steady State solution prevailed, all you atheists would be hailing this monumental breakthrough that the universe had no beginning, thus no point of creation, thus no creator.

Funny how atheists always talk about how science has destroyed Gods. How science destroyed the moon God, the Sun God, the God of the planets. Funny how people thought the Sun was raised by the hand of God, yet science found that not to be true, that it was actually gravity.

Yet, when an instance arises where science didn't disprove God, ie the Big Bang, then all the sudden the power of science is too feeble to destroy Gods, to the atheist.

I find no credibility in such hypocrisy. Either science can destroy Gods or it can't. Make up your minds.
 
arg-fallbackName="australopithecus"/>
Science doesn't prove or disprove anything, chuckles. It evidences. Evidence has shown certain theistic beliefs to be wrong, it doesn't state anything about the existence of actual gods. Also, atheism =/= science. Try harder. The big bang theory has nothing to do with gods or their likelyhood, it only describes the universe from planck time onwards.

But please, feel free to fulfill the burden of proof that lies with those who claim gods do anything.
 
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