Propriety as an analogy to Morality...

[Gunboat Diplomat]

I just came up with an analogy to morality that I think will help expose the flaw in the belief of it being objective: propriety.

Claiming that there exists an objective morality makes as much sense as claiming that there exists an objective propriety. In other words, will anyone argue that there exists an objective measure of what is rude? ...because that makes as much sense as saying that something is objectively moral.

Morality, like propriety, is about what kind of society we wish to live in. This, of course, will vary with each individual. We might as well be debating over objective humor...

 

[Master_Ghost_Knight]

I disagree. Morality can only not be objective if it can not be completely defined or if the way it is used rests upon personal opinion.

Take for example, "I like vanilla cake". This maybe a true statement when "John" says it and a false statement when "Smith" says it, John likes vanilla cake and Smith doesn't. This is an example of a subjective statement.
Now if I were to say, "John likes vanilla cake". This statement will be true either "John" says it or "Smith" says it. This is an objective statement even if it is about a subjective experience (i.e. when John tastes vanilla cake only John tastes it, but John does indeed like it).
Now when I say, "The LOR board theme is blue". If the term blue is not properly defined John can say "yea it is blue" while Smith can say "No, it's not exactly blue, it is blueish", that would be a subjective statement. However if I define blue as "more than 75% of the visible power spectrum lies between X frequency and Y frequency", then it is objective because either John or Smith measures it it will come out the same thing.

So, before I am to grant your analogy of morality with the words "rude" and "humor", you must first show that they are indeed comparable, because I don't see that they are.

 

[Gunboat Diplomat]

I disagree. Morality can only not be objective if it can not be completely defined or if the way it is used rests upon personal opinion.

I would argue the latter...

So, before I am to grant your analogy of morality with the words "rude" and "humor", you must first show that they are indeed comparable, because I don't see that they are.

They are comparable in the sense that they both "rest upon personal opinion." What is rude to you is not necessarily rude to me. What is funny to you is not necessarily funny to me... How can one even make sense of the notion of something being "objectively rude?"

 

[Master_Ghost_Knight]

They are comparable in the sense that they both "rest upon personal opinion."

But, that is assuming the conclusion.