I had a discussion with someone, and we touched the topic of argumentum ad ignorantiam.
I put it in this forum because it is more related to Newton's Law of Motion (or any law for that matter). If the law is true because there hasnt been any observation that contradict that, wouldnt that mean the law was justified by argument from ignorance?
He then challenged, by proposing his own 'law' that everything that human can conceive is originated from reality (or combination of more than one). For example, human can conceive of tooth fairy by combining the idea of fairy (or any mystical being) and disappearance of teeth (???). Honestly, I cannot find any rebuttal (because I do npt know where to start), but also he challenge me to falsify his 'law' by finding anything that human can conceive that is not from reality.
[He actually continue that "since human can conceive the concept of god", therefore "the concept of god is derived from reality". If you want to write the refutation for this argument for god, you are welcome. But I am more concerned with his assertion that any law being derived from argument ad ignorantiam, which is also comparable to his 'law').
Thanks in advance,
I put it in this forum because it is more related to Newton's Law of Motion (or any law for that matter). If the law is true because there hasnt been any observation that contradict that, wouldnt that mean the law was justified by argument from ignorance?
He then challenged, by proposing his own 'law' that everything that human can conceive is originated from reality (or combination of more than one). For example, human can conceive of tooth fairy by combining the idea of fairy (or any mystical being) and disappearance of teeth (???). Honestly, I cannot find any rebuttal (because I do npt know where to start), but also he challenge me to falsify his 'law' by finding anything that human can conceive that is not from reality.
[He actually continue that "since human can conceive the concept of god", therefore "the concept of god is derived from reality". If you want to write the refutation for this argument for god, you are welcome. But I am more concerned with his assertion that any law being derived from argument ad ignorantiam, which is also comparable to his 'law').
Thanks in advance,