In the UK we have a law which reads:
". . . whosoever shall solicit, encourage, persuade, or endeavour to persuade, or shall propose to any person, to murder any other person, whether he be a subject of Her Majesty or not, and whether he be within the Queen’s dominions or not, shall be guilty of a misdemeanor, and being convicted thereof shall be liable . . . to [imprisonment for life] . . ." (Section 4, Offences against the Person Act 1861)
My question is then, why do religious texts appear exempt from this law? There are numerous verses in Abrahamic scriptures that call for the murder of disbelievers. They are not merely describing a murder, but specifically telling the reader to murder. If someone were to hand these holy books out on the street, (and encourage people to follow the word) why would they avoid arrest? (This is a genuine question; I'm not trying to rabble-rouse!)
". . . whosoever shall solicit, encourage, persuade, or endeavour to persuade, or shall propose to any person, to murder any other person, whether he be a subject of Her Majesty or not, and whether he be within the Queen’s dominions or not, shall be guilty of a misdemeanor, and being convicted thereof shall be liable . . . to [imprisonment for life] . . ." (Section 4, Offences against the Person Act 1861)
My question is then, why do religious texts appear exempt from this law? There are numerous verses in Abrahamic scriptures that call for the murder of disbelievers. They are not merely describing a murder, but specifically telling the reader to murder. If someone were to hand these holy books out on the street, (and encourage people to follow the word) why would they avoid arrest? (This is a genuine question; I'm not trying to rabble-rouse!)