Omniscience and free will seem, to me, to be mutually exclusive. Which of these two arguments seems more valid and why?
1. If free will exists then omniscience is not possible.
2. Free will exists.
3. An omniscient god is not possible.
Or...
1. If free will exists then omniscience is not possible.
2. God is omniscient.
3. Free will does not exist.
1. If free will exists then omniscience is not possible.
2. Free will exists.
3. An omniscient god is not possible.
Or...
1. If free will exists then omniscience is not possible.
2. God is omniscient.
3. Free will does not exist.